Posted by: Marty | June 1, 2012

Did Jesus Christ Address “Homosexuality?”

Some brother preachers and I got the opportunity to do some street preaching at Chattanooga’s 2nd annual “pride” event. We got the usual flak from the sodomites (well, we really didn’t expect them to roll out the red carpet), and the usual dressing down from pseudo-“Christian” passers-by; nothing unusual. What I really wanted to address is this notion that a) Jesus Christ never said anything about “homosexuality;” and b) that the New Testament doesn’t condemn “homosexuality,” (have you ever been told, by a 6’3” drag queen that the New Testament doesn’t mention “homosexuality?” It’s not a pretty sight!)

So, did the Lord Jesus Christ address the issue of sodomite relations? The short answer is “no.” He did not directly address the issue, however the assertion that He never said anything pertaining to the subject belies a fundamental misunderstanding or an outright rejection of the authority of the scriptures. This “red-letter” sort of bible interpretation that puts more weight on the words that Jesus spoke while upon earth is invalid. All scripture is inspired by God (2 Timothy 3:16-17) and therefore carries more authority than a voice out of heaven (2 Peter 1:16-21). In other words “Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination,” Leviticus 18:22 is as inspired by God as John 3:16. Furthermore, the Old Testament was written for our learning, admonition and ensample. While New Testament Christians are not under the Mosaic law, any law or command from the Old Testament that is repeated or upheld in principle in the New Testament is just as binding. So when you couple Old Testament passages such as the ones from Leviticus and Deuteronomy with a passage out of Romans or 1 Corinthians, what you have is a clear witness from God that this doctrine is binding upon all people for all time.

So while Jesus never said “Thou shalt not commit sodomy,” He did define marriage, as well as condemn lust (Matthew 5:27-28), adultery and fornication (Matthew 15:18-20).

Jesus Christ is God (1 Timothy 3:16, 1 John 5:7). When God defines something, that definition is absolute and authoritative. Even in the natural realm you can’t legitimately re-define something without destroying the original definition. For example: My big white van will never be a little red Corvette no matter who defines it as such.

When the Pharisees came to Jesus with a question on divorce Jesus upheld, not only the Genesis account of creation, but also the Genesis definition of marriage.

“The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” Matthew 19:3-6

So to say that Jesus had nothing to say about sodomy is to play fast and loose with the New Testament text! The bible definition is: marriage = one man + one woman + one time! Let God be true and every man a liar.(Romans 3:4)

Advertisements

Leave a Reply

Fill in your details below or click an icon to log in:

WordPress.com Logo

You are commenting using your WordPress.com account. Log Out / Change )

Twitter picture

You are commenting using your Twitter account. Log Out / Change )

Facebook photo

You are commenting using your Facebook account. Log Out / Change )

Google+ photo

You are commenting using your Google+ account. Log Out / Change )

Connecting to %s

Categories

%d bloggers like this: